Friday, 19 August 2016

50 TOP ENZYME REACTION Questions and Answers pdf

Latest ENZYME REACTION Multiple choice Questions and Answers pdf

1. The ability of Vibrio fischeri to convert chemical energy directly into radiant energy in bioluminescence is an example of __________ at work.
A. Shelford’s law of tolerance
B. Leibig’s law of the minimum
C. the first law of thermodynamics
D. the third law of thermodynamics
Answer: C

2. The ability of a competitive inhibitor to bind to an active site in an allosterically controlled enzyme is __________ than the ability of a non-competitive inhibitor to bind to an active site in the same allosterically controlled enzyme.
A. greater
B. lesser
C. approximately equal
D. half
Answer: A

3. The ability of FADH to be oxidized is __________ than the ability of FAD to be oxidized.
A. greater
B. lesser
C. approximately equal
D. half
Answer: A

4. An endergonic reaction is one that
A. requires energy in order to proceed
B. releases energy for work
C. gives off much heat
D. looses energy
Answer: A

5. Reduction is the
A. loss of proton
B. gain of electron
C. loss of electron
D. gain of protons
Answer: B

6. If the Keq for an enzymatic reaction is greater than 1, the reaction
A. will be endergonic
B. can not occur without the input of energy
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these
Answer: D

7. An exergonic reaction is one that
A. requires energy to proceed
B. releases energy for work
C. gives off much heat
D. looses energy
Answer: B

8. If the free energy change (ΔG) in a reaction is a negative value, it indicates that the
A. reaction releases energy
B. reaction absorbs energy
C. reaction is in negative direction
D. reaction is in positive direction
Answer: A

9. To a living organism, which of the following has the greatest amount of available energy per molecule?
A. ATP
B. ADP
C. AMP
D. H2O
Answer: A

10. Which of the following is the best evidence for the lock and key theory of enzyme action?
A. Compounds similar in structure to the substrate inhibit enzyme activity
B. Enzymes are found in living organisms and speed up certain reactions
C. Enzymes speed up reactions by definite amounts
D. Enzymes determine the direction of a reaction
Answer: A

ENZYME REACTION Questions and Answers ::

11. In the reaction, C6H12O6+ 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy, which component is being oxidized?
A. C6H12O6
B. O2
C. CO2
D. H2O
Answer: A

12. The fact that β-oxidation of fatty acids, occurs in the mitochondria whereas fatty acid synthesis occurs in the cytoplasmic matrix, is an example
of regulation of enzymatic activity by the __________ mechanism.
A. compartmentation
B. induction
C. competitive inhibition
D. repression
Answer: D

13. In the reaction, C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy, which component is being reduced?
A. O2
B. CO2
C. H2O
D. Energy
Answer: A

14. The affinity of an enzyme for its substrate, when the enzyme has a Km of 0.50 M will be __________ than the affinity of an enzyme for its substrate when the enzyme has a Km of 0.05 M.
A. greater
B. lesser
C. approximately equal
D. half
Answer: B

15. Anthranilate synthase, the first enzyme of tryptophan biosynthesis after the branch point shows feedback inhibition and repression due to
A. L-tryptophan
B. D-L-tryptophan hydantoin
C. L-serine
D. pyruvate
Answer: A

16. A substrate binds to its enzyme at a location called the __________ site.
A. coenzyme
B. substrate
C. active
D. polypeptide
Answer: C

17. Hydrogen and oxygen release enormous amounts of energy when they react. Yet, hydrogen and oxygen can be mixed together in a balloon and nothing will happen. Why?
A. Competitive inhibitors are blocking the reaction from occurring in the active site
B. There must be contaminating elements in the balloon that prohibit the reaction from occurring
C. The energy of activation to form the transition-state complex is too high to allow the reaction to occur without assistance
D. all of the above
Answer: A

18. Adenosine triphosphate is a type of
A. fatty acid
B. amino acid
C. nucleotide
D. steroid
Answer: C

19. An enzyme that is always produced, regardless of the presence of substrates or the end products, is called
A. a constitutive enzyme
B. an isoenzyme
C. a repressible enzyme
D. an allosteric enzyme
Answer: A

20. About 7.3 kcal/mole are released when
A. glucose is converted to CO2 and H2O
B. NAD+ is reduced to NADH
C. ATP hydrolysis is coupled to sucrose synthesis
D. the terminal phosphate bond of ATP is broken by hydrolysis
Answer: A

21. The ability of CTP to bind to aspartate carbamoyltransferase and shut down the synthesis of more CTP is an example of
A. enzyme induction
B. enzyme repression
C. feedback inhibition of enzyme activity
D. none of these
Answer: C

22. Oxidation is the
A. loss of proton
B. gain of electron
C. loss of electron
D. gain of protons
Answer: C

23. Denaturation of an enzyme refers to the
A. improper arrangement of the enzyme in a metabolic pathway
B. loss of the enzymes proper shape
C. formation of the enzymes proper shape
D. formation of a new isozyme for that enzyme
Answer: B

100 TOP ENERGY RELEASE and CONSERVATION Questions and Answers

Latest ENERGY RELEASE and CONSERVATION Multiple choice Questions and Answers

1. Organisms can synthesize ATP by oxidative phosphorylation when they
A. ferment
B. oxidize glucose to pyruvate
C. pass electrons from the oxidation of chlorophyll through an electron transport system
D. pass electrons to oxygen through an electron transport system containing cytochromes
Answer: D

2. How many molecules of carbon dioxide will be given off during ten turns of the Krebs cycle?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: B

3. In cellular metabolism, O2 is used
A. to provide electrons for photophosphorylation
B. in glycolysis
C. as a terminal electron acceptor
D. in the Krebs cycle
Answer: C

4. In glycolysis, ATP is created by
A. photophosphorylation
B. the chemiosmotic mechanism
C. substrate level phosphorylation
D. the pentose phosphate pathway
Answer: C

5. Suppose a eukaryotic cell had a mutation that prevented the production of cytochrome c. As a result of this mutation, which of the following processes would not occur?
A. Cellular respiration
B. Photosynthesis
C. Mitosis
D. Cell wall synthesis
Answer: A

6. Which of the following best explains about the usefulness of the production of ethanol in yeast cells under anaerobic conditions?
A. Ethanol keeps the electron transport system functioning
B. Yeast would be unable to activate the enzymes of the Krebs cycle without ethanol
C. The process generates oxygen, which is required for glycolysis
D. The process regenerates NAD+, which is required for glycolysis
Answer: D

7. The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is
A. CoQ
B. a cytochrome
C. FMN
D. oxygen
Answer: D

8. The amount of energy (cal/mole) in an ATP molecule produced by a cell from glucose by fermentation is
A. greater than aerobic metabolism
B. less than aerobic metabolism
C. exactly or approximately equal to aerobic metabolism
D. none of the above
Answer: C

9. The enzymes for glycolysis are located
A. on the inner surface of the cell membrane
B. on the inner membrane of the mitochondrion
C. on the outer membrane of the chloroplast
D. in the cytoplasm
Answer: D

10. Glucose can be broken down to pyruvate by
A. Entner-Doudoroff pathway
B. tricarboxylic acid cycle
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of these
Answer: A

11. In lactic acid fermentation, the final electron acceptor would be
A. fructose B. pyruvate
C. glucose D. acetyl-CoA
Answer: B

12. The amount of ATP that can be obtained by complete oxidation of a glucose by a bacterium is
A. greater than by a yeast cell
B. lesser than by a yeast cell
C. exactly or approximately equal to by a yeast cell
D. none of these
Answer: A

13. Which of the following is accomplished in chemiosmosis?
A. The oxidation of ATP
B. The oxidation of water
C. The oxidation of NADH
D. The oxidation of CO2
Answer: C

14. A yeast or fungal cell produces how many net ATP molecules per molecule of glucose when completely oxidized?
A. 32
B. 34
C. 36
D. 38
Answer: C

15. Before most molecules can enter the Krebs citric acid cycle, they must be converted to
A. citric acid
B. oxaloacetic acid
C. NADH or FADH
D. acetyl-CoA
Answer: D

16. How many oxygen molecules are required in the fermentation of one molecule of glucose to ethanol and CO2?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 36
Answer: A

17. Most bacterial fermentations yield how many net ATP molecules per molecule of glucose?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B

18. The amount of ATP produced by a cell from glucose when metabolizing it by fermentation means is
A. greater than by aerobic metabolism
B. lesser than by aerobic metabolism
C. exactly or approximately equal to by aerobic metabolism
D. none of these
Answer: B

19. Which one of the following is produced in the greatest numbers during one turn of the Krebs cycle?
A. NADH
B. Acetyl-CoA
C. FADH2
D. ATP
Answer: A

20. Aerobic respiration differs from anaerobic respiration in which of the following respects?
A. Anaerobic respiration is glycolysis
B. Aerobic respiration requires the electron transport chain
C. The final electron acceptors are different
D. Aerobic respiration produces less ATP
Answer: C

21. For each pair of electrons passing from NADH located inside the mitochondria to oxygen, how many ATP molecules can be generated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

22. In anaerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor can be
A. oxygen
B. nitrate
C. pyruvate
D. acetyl-CoA
Answer: B

23. Which one of the following is not produced in any of the steps of glycolysis?
A. NAD+
B. NADH
C. ADP
D. ATP
Answer: A

24. The number of ATP molecules produced from one glucose molecule by a bacterium producing lactic acid is
A. greater than producing ethanol
B. lesser than producing ethanol
C. approximately equal to producing ethanol
D. none of these
Answer: C

25. Which of the following is the most complete definition of fermentation?
A. Oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors
B. Complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and HO2
C. Production of energy by substrate-level phosphorylation
D. Production of ethyl alcohol from glucose
Answer: A

26. The enzymes that catalyze the reactions of the Krebs cycle are found in which subcellular organelle of eukaryotes?
A. Mitochondrion
B. Chloroplast
C. Ribosome
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: A

27. Fatty acids are oxidized to acetyl-CoA by which of the following pathways?
A. β-oxidation
B. Entner-Doudoroff
C. pentose phosphate pathway
D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway
Answer: A

30 TOP DNA REPLICATION Questions and Answers pdf download

Latest DNA REPLICATION Multiple choice Questions and Answers pdf download

1. Both strands of DNA serve as templates concurrently in
A. replication
B. excision repair
C. mismatch repair
D. none of these
Answer: A

2. Proofreading activity to maintain the fidelity of DNA synthesis
A. occurs after the synthesis has been completed
B. is a function of the 3′-5′ exonuclease activity of the DNA polymerases
C. requires the presence of an enzyme separate from the DNA polymerases
D. occurs in prokaryotes but not eukaryotes
Answer: B

3. Which of the following repairs nicked DNA by forming a phosphodiester bond between adjacent nucleotides?
A. Helicase
B. DNA gyrase
C. Topoisomerases
D. DNA ligase
Answer: D

4. The enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of DNA is called
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA gyrase
C. DNA ligase
D. helicase
Answer: A

5. Which of the following possesses both 5′-3′ and 3′-5′ exonuclease activity?
A. Kornberg enzyme
B. DNA polymerase III
C. Taq DNA polymerase
D. None of these
Answer: A

6. Which of the following statements on replication in E.coli is correct?
A. It occurs in a unidirectional manner
B. It occurs in bidirectional manner
C. Always uses T7 DNA polymerase when infected by T7 phage
D. Occurs only when ? phase has infected E. coli
Answer: B

7. The replication of chromosomes by eukaryotes occurs in a relatively short period of time because
A. the eukaryotes have more amount of DNA for replication
B. the eukaryotic replication machinery is 1000 times faster than the prokaryotes
C. each chromosome contains multiple replicons
D. eukaryotic DNA is always single stranded
Answer: C

8. In E.coli, which enzyme synthesizes the RNA primer for Okazaki fragments?
A. DnaA
B. DnaC
C. DnaG
D. all of these
Answer: C

9. During which of the following process a new copy of a DNA molecule is precisely synthesized?
A. Trasformation
B. Transcription
C. Translation
D. Replication
Answer: D

10. DNA gyrase is inhibited by
A. tetracycline
B. nalidixic acid
C. both (a) and (b)
D. cephalosporin
Answer: B

11. Which of the following enzymes unwind short stretches of DNA helix immediately ahead of a replication fork?
A. DNA polymerases
B. Helicases
C. Single-stranded binding proteins
D. Topoisomerases
Answer: B

12. During DNA replication in prokaryotes, synthesis begins on the circular chromosome
A. always at the same place
B. at any stretch of DNA that is high in AT pairs
C. randomly on the chromosome
D. at the promoter
Answer: A

13. DNA replication rates in prokaryotes are approximately of the order of
A. 10 bases per second
B. 1,00 bases per second
C. 1,000 bases per second
D. 10,000 bases per second
Answer: C

14. Which of the following lacks 3′-5′ exonuclease activity?
A. Short fragment of DNA polymerase I
B. Taq DNA polymerase
C. T4 DNA ligase
D. All of the above
Answer: D

15. The synthesis of DNA by DNA polymerase occurs in the
A. 3′ to 5′ direction
B. 5′ to 5′ direction
C. 5′ to 3′ direction
D. 3′ to 3′ direction
Answer: C

15 TOP CLOSTRIDIUM Interview Questions and Answers

Latest CLOSTRIDIUM Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. Which of the following types of Clostridium perfringens produces alpha toxin most abundantly?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
Answer: A

2. Which of the following is predominantly proteolytic?
A. C. sporogenes
B. C. histolyticum
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. C. speticum
Answer: C

3. Which of the following properties are the characteristics of tetanospasmin?
A. It is a heat-labile protein
B. It is a neurotoxin
C. It can be toxoided
D. All of these
Answer: D

4. Types of exotoxin, most commonly associated with botulism in man, is/are?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type E
D. All of these
Answer: D

5. Nagler’s reaction is useful for the identification of
A. C tetani
B. C perfringens
C. C botulinum
D. C difficile
Answer: B

6. The most toxic exotoxin is
A. tetanus toxin
B. diphtheria toxin
C. botulinum toxin
D. cholera toxin
Answer: C

7. Which of the following species of Clostridium is predominantly sacchrolytic?
A. C septicum
B. C perfringens
C. C novyi
D. All of these
Answer: D

8. Stormy clot reaction is useful in identification of
A. C tetani
B. C botulinum
C. C perfringens
D. C difficile
Answer: C

9. Food poisoning strains of Clostridium perfringens belong to
A. type A
B. type B
C. type C
D. type D
Answer: A

10. Reddening of meat in cooked meat broth is produced by
A. C tetani
B. C histolyticum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. C sporogenes
Answer: C

11. Clostridium botulinum food poisoning is due to
A. invasion of bacteria in the intestine
B. preformed toxin
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above
Answer: B

12. Drumstick appearance is characteristic of
A. C tetanomorphum
B. C tetani
C. C sphenoides
D. all of these
Answer: D

13. Blackening of meat in cooked meat broth is through
A. C histolyticum
B. C perfringens
C. C tetani
D. all of these
Answer: A

14. Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is generally seen in
A. C perfringens
B. C botulinum
C. C tetani
D. C histolyticum
Answer: C

15. Which of the following(s) is/are obligate anaeorbes?
A. C septicum
B. C novyi
C. C tetani
D. All of these
Answer: D

20 TOP CELL CULTIVATIONS Questions and Answers

Latest CELL CULTIVATIONS Multiple choice Questions and Answers

1. Which of the following is the necessary step for cultivating the microorganisms?
A. Preparing a culture medium for the growth of microorganisms
B. Sterilizing in order to eliminate all living microorganisms in vessel
C. Inoculating the microorganisms in the prepared medium
D. All of the above
Answer: D

2. For most bacteria, the optimum pH for growth lies between
A. 6.5-7.5
B. 3.5-4.5
C. 4.5-5.5
D. 5.5-6.5
Answer: A

3. Which of the following is an abiotic elicitors?
A. UV irradiation
B. Osmotic shock
C. Heavy metal ions
D. All of these
Answer: D

4. Suspension cultures consist of cells and cell aggregates, growing dispersed in
A. liquid medium
B. solid nutrient medium
C. solid or liquid medium
D. none of these
Answer: A

5. Thiobacillus thiooxidans has an optimum pH of
A. 2.0-3.5
B. 0.5-6.0
C. 6.5-7.5
D. 9.0-9.5
Answer: A

6. Balanced growth is defined as
A. cultures undergoing balanced growth while maintaining a constant chemical composition
B. balancing the growth while controlling the pH
C. balancing the growth while controlling the temperature
D. balancing the growth while changing the nutrient composition
Answer: A

7. Semi-solid media, prepared with agar at concentrations of 0.5% or less are useful for the cultivation of
A. Microaerophillic bacteria
B. Lactobacilli
C. E.coli
D. all of these
Answer: A

8. The cell mass can be measured optically by determining the amount of light scattered by a suspension of cells. The measurements are usually at a wavelength of
A. 300-400nm
B. 400-500nm
C. 500-600nm
D. 600-700nm
Answer: D

9. Which of the following is not an indirect method for the measurement of cell mass?
A. Nutrient composition
B. Cell dry weight
C. Viscosity
D. Heat evolution
Answer: B

10. Callus cultures are amorphous cell aggregates arising from the unorganized growth of explants on an
A. liquid medium
B. solid nutrient medium
C. aseptic solid nutrient medium
D. solid or liquid medium
Answer: C

11. The protoplast can be used to
A. modify genetic information
B. create plant hybrid
C. study plant viral infections
D. all of these
Answer: D

12. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Mammalian cells are larger and more complex than microorganisms
B. Their growth rate is very fast compared to microorganisms
C. Mammalian cells are fragile
D. Most animal cells only grow when attached to surface
Answer: B

13. The size of a single plant cell is usually within the range of
A. 10-20μm in diameter and 25-100μm long
B. 20-40μm in diameter and 100-200μm long
C. 40-60μm in diameter and 200-300μm long
D. 60-80μm in diameter and 300-400μm long
Answer: B

14. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Plant cells are larger than the bacterial or fungus cells
B. Plant cells tend to grow in clumps
C. Plant cells are less sensitive to shear than microbial cells
D. Plant cells are more genetically unstable than microbial cells
Answer: C

15. The archaebacterium Halobacterium, an extreme halophile, and Sulfolobus, a thermoacidophile, can be cultured in the presence of antibiotics such as streptomycin and chloramphenicol because
A. they contain ether-linked isoprenoids in their plasma membrane
B. they lack murein in their cell wall
C. they contain 80S, as opposed to 70S, ribosomes
D. all of the above
Answer: B

16. The isolation of the gonorrhoea – causing organisms, Neisseria gonorrhoeae,from a clinical specimen is facilitated by the use of media containing
A. cellulose
B. certain antibiotics
C. succinate
D. none of these
Answer: B

17. Anchorage -dependent cells require
A. wettable surface for growth
B. dry surface for growth
C. either (a) or (b)
D. nothing to do with the surface
Answer: A

18. Stringent anaerobes can be grown in a media by taking special measure as
A. boiling the media for several minutes
B. addition of cysteine
C. passing through oxygen-free nitrogen
D. any of these
Answer: D

19. Radical shifts in pH can be prevented by incorporating
A. a buffer
B. an oxidizing agent
C. a reducing agent
D. any of these
Answer: A

30 TOP BRUCELLA Questions and Answers pdf download

Latest BRUCELLA Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. Which of the following can be identified by milk ring test?
A. Brucellosis
B. Salmonellosis
C. Bovine tuberculosis
D. All of these
Answer: A

2. For brucellosis, 2 ME agglutination test is used to identify
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
Answer: A

3. Human transmission of Brucellae occurs by
A. ingestion of contaminated meat
B. direct contact with animal tissues
C. ingestion of infected milk
D. all of these
Answer: D

4. Agglutination test for Brucella mainly identifies which class of antibodies?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
Answer: B

5. The most pathogenic Brucella spp for man is
A. B melitensis
B. B abortus
C. B suis
D. B canis
Answer: A

6. Brucella are
A. Cocci
B. Rods
C. Cocobacilli
D. Very short rods
Answer: D

100 TOP Real Time BACTERIA MORPHOLOGY Questions and Answers

Latest BACTERIA MORPHOLOGY Multiple choice Questions and Answers

1. Which of the following bacteria lack a cell wall and are therefore resistant to penicillin?
A. Cyanobacteria
B. Mycoplasmas
C. Defibrillators
D. Spirochetes
Answer: B

2. A cluster of polar flagella is called
A. lophotrichous
B. amphitrichous
C. monotrichous
D. petritrichous
Answer: A

3. Flagella move the cell by
A. many flagella beating in a synchronous, whip-like motion
B. an individual flagellum beating in a whip-like motion
C. spinning like a propeller
D. attaching to nearby particles and contracting
Answer: C

4. The protein from which hook and filaments of flagella are composed of, is
A. keratin
B. flagellin
C. gelatin
D. casein
Answer: B

5. The cooci which mostly occur in single or pairs are
A. Streptococci
B. Diplococci
C. Tetracocci
D. None of these
Answer: B

6. Which of the following may contain fimbriae?
A. Gram-positive bacteria
B. Gram-negative bacteria
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these
Answer: B

7. Peptidoglycan accounts for __________ of the dry weight of cell wall in many gram positive bacteria
A. 50% or more
B. About 10%
C. 11%+ 0.22%
D. About 20%
Answer: A

8. Bacteria having no flagella are unable to
A. move
B. reproduce
C. stick to tissue surfaces
D. grow in nutrient agar
Answer: A

9. Which of the following is true about cell wall of gram-positive bacteria?
A. It consists of multiple layers
B. It is thicker than that associated with gram-negative bacteria
C. It contains teichoic acids
D. All of these
Answer: D

10. The cell walls of many gram positive bacteria can be easily destroyed by the enzyme known as
A. lipase
B. lysozyme
C. pectinase
D. peroxidase
Answer: B
11. The cell wall of
A. gram-positive bacteria are thicker than gram-negative bacteria
B. gram-negative bacteria are thicker than gram-positive bacteria
C. both have same thickness but composition is different
D. none of these
Answer: A
12. Peptidoglycan is also known as
A. N-acetyl muramic acid
B. murein mucopeptide
C. N acetylglucosamine
D. mesodiaminopimetic acid
Answer: B
13. Genetic system is located in the prokaryotes in
A. nucleoid
B. chromatin
C. nuclear material
D. all of these
Answer: D
14. Which is most likely to be exposed on the surface of a gram-negative bacterium?
A. Pore protein (porin)
B. Protein involved in energy generation
C. Lipoteichoic acid
D. Phospholipids
Answer: A
15. The last step in synthesis of peptidoglycan is
A. attachment of a peptide to muramic acid
B. attaching two amino acids to form a cross-link
C. attachment of a portion of peptidoglycan to a membrane lipid
D. binding of penicillin to a membrane protein
Answer: B
17. The cocci which forms a bunch and irregular pattern are
A. Staphylococci
B. diplococci
C. Tetracocci
D. Streptococci
Answer: A
18. Chemotaxis is a phenomenon of
A. swimming away of bacteria
B. swimming towards a bacteria
C. swimming away or towards of bacteria in presence of chemical compound
D. none of the above
Answer: C
19. The structure responsible for motility of bacteria is
A. pilli
B. flagella
C. sheath
D. capsules
Answer: B
20. The next to last step in peptidoglycan biosynthesis is
A. synthesis of the NAM-peptide subunit
B. removal of the subunit from bactoprenol
C. linking the sugar of the disaccharide-peptide unit to the growing peptidoglycan chain
D. cross-linking the peptide side chains of peptidoglycan
Answer: C
21. The cocci which forms a chain is
A. Streptococci
B. diplococci
C. Staphylococci
D. Tetracocci
Answer: A
22. The arrangement, in which flagella are distributed all round the bacterial cell, is known as
A. lophotrichous B. amphitrichous
C. peritrichous D. monotrichous
Answer: C
23. Periplasm is
A. the area between the inner and outer membranes of gram-negative bacteria
B. the area between the inner and outer membranes of Gram-positive bacteria
C. the interior portion of mitochondria
D. the area outside the cell membrane that is influenced by the polymers
Answer: A
24. Which of the following has peptidoglycan as a major constituent of cell wall?
A. Gram-negative bacteria
B. Gram-positive bacteria
C. Fungi
D. None of these
Answer: B
25. The common word for bacteria which are helically curved rods is
A. cooci B. pleomorphic
C. bacillus D. spirilla
Answer: D
26. The bacteria deficient in cell wall is
A. Treponema
B. Mycoplasma
C. Staphylococcus
D. Klebsiella
Answer: B
27. Which of the following is not true about peptidoglycan?
A. It is a polymer consisting of N-acetyl glucosamine, N-acetyl muramic acid and amino acids (alanine, lysine, etc.)
B. It is present in prokaryotic cell wall
C. It occurs in the form of a bag shaped macro molecule surrounding the cytoplasm membrane
D. None of the above
Answer: D
28. The common word for bacteria which are spherical in shape is
A. cocci B. bacilli
C. spirilla D. pleomorphic
Answer: A
29. Single or clusters of flagella at both poles is known as
A. monotrichous
B. petritrichous
C. amphitrichous
D. none of these
Answer: C
30. Which of the following bacterial genera (that produces endospore) have medical importance?
A. Clostridium
B. Bacillus
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these
Answer: C
BACTERIA MORPHOLOGY Questions and Answers pdf ::
31. Microcapsules are composed of
A. proteins
B. polysaccharides
C. lipids
D. all of these
Answer: D
32. Gram positive cells have a
A. second outer membrane that helps to retain the crystal violet stain
B. multiple layer of peptidoglycan that helps to retain the crystal violet stain
C. thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain
D. periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet
Answer: B
33. The common word for bacteria which are straight rod in shape is
A. cooci B. bacilli
C. spirilla D. pleomorphic
Answer: B
34. A single polar flagella is known as
A. monotrichous
B. lophotrichous
C. amphitrichous
D. none of these
Answer: A
36. In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes are
A. 70S
B. 60S
C. 80S
D. Not specific
Answer: C
37. Porins are located in
A. the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria
B. the peptidoglycan layer of gram-positive bacteria
C. the cytoplasmic membrane of both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria
D. the periplasmic space of gram-negative bacteria
Answer: A
38. Which of the following is exposed on the outer surface of a gram-negative bacterium?
A. O-antigen of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
B. Polysaccharide portion of lipoteichoic acid (LTA)
C. Braun lipoprotein
D. Electron transport system components
Answer: A
39. Which of the following does not contain protein?
A. Pili
B. Flagellum
C. Lipoteichoic acid
D. Porin
Answer: C
40. Swimming towards a chemical of bacteria is termed as
A. positive chemotaxis
B. negative chemotaxis
C. phototaxis
D. magnetotaxis
Answer: C
41. Chemically the capsule may be
A. polypeptide
B. polysaccharide
C. either (a) or (b)
D. none of these
Answer: C
42. Peptidoglycan is found only in the bacterial
A. cell membrane
B. glycocalyx
C. cell wall
D. spore
Answer: C
43. The cell walls of Gram positive bacteria contain two modified sugar, viz. N- acetylgucosamine (NAG) and N- acetylmuramic acid (NAM). They are covalently linked by
A. α- 1,4-glycosidic bond
B. β-1,6-glycosidic bond
C. α- 1,6-glycosidic bond
D. β- 1,4-glycosidic bond
Answer: D
44. Which of the following organism has sterols in their cytoplasmic membrane?
A. Clostridum
B. Proteus
C. Mycoplasma
D. Bacillius
Answer: C
45. Name the component of flagellum.
A. Filament
B. Hook
C. Basal body
D. All of these
Answer: D
46. The location where the bacterial chromosome concentrates is called
A. nucleus
B. nuclein
C. nucleoid
D. nucleose
Answer: C
47. Which of the following is analogous to mesosomes of bacteria?
A. Mitochondria of eukaryotes
B. Golgi apparatus of eukaryotes
C. Lysosomes of eukaryotes
D. None of these
Answer: A
48. Which of the following has Chinese letter arrangement?
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer: D
49. The other name for peptidoglycan is
A. mucopeptide
B. murein
C. both (a) & (b)
D. none of these
Answer: C
50. Cyanobacteria have
A. a gram-positive cell wall
B. a gram-negative cell wall
C. Neither (a) nor (b)
D. No cell wall
Answer: B
51. In which of the following, lipo-polysaccharide is a major constituent of outer membrane of the cellwall?
A. Gram-positive bacteria
B. Gram-negative bacteria
C. Fungi
D. None of these
Answer: B
52. Which of the following structure(s) is /are external to cell wall?
A. Flagella
B. Stalks
C. Sheath
D. All of these
Answer: D
53. Which of the following may be most likely to be missing from a gram-positive bacterium?
A. Penicillin binding protein
B. Peptidoglycan
C. Lipopolysaccharide
D. Phospholipid bilayer membrane
Answer: C